Part 107 Regulations Practice Test

Regulations make up 48% of the real exam โ€” the biggest block by far โ€” and are the most memorization-friendly points on the test: the 400-ft ceiling, the 100-mph speed limit, the $500/10-day accident rule, bottle-to-throttle, and who's really in command. This 37-question drill gives instant feedback and cites the 14 CFR rule behind every answer, plus FAA guidance where the rule is silent. New to the rules? Start with What Is Part 107?

Prefer to read? Jump to all 37 questions with answers ↓

Next step: airspace is the next-biggest block at 20% โ€” take the airspace practice test, then put it together in the full 60-question mock exam.

Related guides: Part 107 Waivers Explained ยท How to Get Your Part 107 License

All 37 regulations questions, with answers and references

The drill above shuffles the answer choices on every attempt. Below is the same 37-question set written out in full, in a fixed order, so you can read it straight through, print it, or check a single rule without restarting a quiz. Each answer carries the reasoning and the FAA source it rests on.

  1. Under Part 107, a small unmanned aircraft must weigh less than how much at takeoff, including everything on board or attached to it?

    • A. 25 pounds
    • B. 55 pounds Correct answer
    • C. 75 pounds
    • D. 100 pounds, including any attached payload

    Why: Part 107 applies to small unmanned aircraft weighing less than 55 lb (25 kg) at takeoff, including all payload and anything attached.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.3

  2. What is the maximum altitude you may fly a small UA under Part 107, unless you stay within 400 feet of a structure?

    • A. 400 ft AGL Correct answer
    • B. 500 ft AGL
    • C. 400 ft MSL, regardless of terrain elevation
    • D. 1,200 ft AGL

    Why: The ceiling is 400 ft above ground level. You may go higher only within a 400-ft radius of a structure, and then no more than 400 ft above the structure's top.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.51(b)

  3. What is the maximum groundspeed allowed for a small unmanned aircraft under Part 107?

    • A. 87 mph
    • B. 100 mph (87 knots) Correct answer
    • C. 120 mph when operating in Class G airspace
    • D. 55 knots

    Why: The groundspeed limit is 100 mph, which equals 87 knots. Remember it is groundspeed, not airspeed, so a tailwind counts against you.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.51(a)

  4. What is the minimum age to hold a remote pilot certificate with an sUAS rating?

    • A. 18 years old
    • B. 14 years old
    • C. 16 years old Correct answer
    • D. 21 years old

    Why: You must be at least 16 years old to be eligible for a remote pilot certificate.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.61

  5. To keep exercising the privileges of a remote pilot certificate, how often must you complete recurrent training?

    • A. Every 12 calendar months
    • B. Every 36 calendar months
    • C. Only once, before the initial knowledge test
    • D. Every 24 calendar months Correct answer

    Why: Recurrent training (free, online) must be completed within the previous 24 calendar months to operate under Part 107. The certificate itself does not expire.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.65

  6. How soon must you report a qualifying sUAS accident to the FAA?

    • A. Immediately by phone
    • B. Within 24 hours
    • C. Within 10 calendar days Correct answer
    • D. Within 30 calendar days of the event

    Why: A report is required no later than 10 calendar days after an operation that causes serious injury, loss of consciousness, or qualifying property damage.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.9

  7. What is the minimum time that must pass between consuming alcohol and operating a small UA ('bottle to throttle')?

    • A. 12 hours
    • B. 4 hours
    • C. 24 hours
    • D. 8 hours Correct answer

    Why: No one may act as a crewmember within 8 hours of consuming alcohol, while under its influence, or with a blood alcohol concentration of .04 or greater.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.27, 91.17

  8. A person may not operate an sUAS with a blood alcohol concentration at or above what level?

    • A. 0.08
    • B. 0.02
    • C. 0.04 Correct answer
    • D. 0.10

    Why: The limit that applies to airmen, including remote pilots, is .04 BAC โ€” stricter than the typical .08 driving limit.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.27, 91.17

  9. What does it cost to register a drone for Part 107 operations, and how long is the registration valid?

    • A. $5 per aircraft, valid 3 years Correct answer
    • B. $5 per pilot for all aircraft, valid 1 year
    • C. Free, valid forever
    • D. $25 per aircraft, valid 3 years

    Why: Part 107 registration in FAA DroneZone is $5 per aircraft and lasts 3 years. The registration number must be marked on the outside of the aircraft.

    Reference: 14 CFR Part 48

  10. Upon request, the remote pilot in command must present the remote pilot certificate to which of the following?

    • A. Only FAA aviation safety inspectors conducting a formal ramp inspection at the flight site
    • B. The FAA, NTSB, TSA, or any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer Correct answer
    • C. Airport managers within 5 NM
    • D. Insurance company adjusters

    Why: 107.7 requires presenting the certificate and identification on request to the FAA, NTSB, TSA, or law enforcement.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.7

  11. During an in-flight emergency, what deviation authority does the remote pilot in command have?

    • A. None โ€” the rules always apply
    • B. May deviate from any Part 107 rule to the extent required to meet the emergency, and must send a written report if the FAA requests one Correct answer
    • C. May deviate only after getting ATC approval by radio
    • D. May deviate only below 200 ft AGL

    Why: In an emergency requiring immediate action, the RPIC may deviate from any rule of Part 107 to the extent needed. The FAA may request a written report afterward.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.21

  12. Without a waiver, how many small unmanned aircraft may one remote pilot operate at the same time?

    • A. One Correct answer
    • B. Two, with a visual observer
    • C. Three, if all are under 2 lb
    • D. As many as the pilot can safely watch

    Why: A person may manipulate the controls of, or act as RPIC for, only one UA at a time unless the FAA has granted a 107.35 waiver.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.35

  13. Under Part 107, carrying hazardous materials on a small unmanned aircraft is:

    • A. Allowed with proper placards
    • B. Allowed if the total weight stays under 55 lb
    • C. Prohibited Correct answer
    • D. Allowed only over unpopulated areas

    Why: 107.36 flatly prohibits the carriage of hazardous materials (as defined in 49 CFR 171.8), including spare lithium batteries carried as cargo.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.36

  14. A small unmanned aircraft must yield the right of way to:

    • A. All other aircraft Correct answer
    • B. Only manned aircraft in distress
    • C. Only aircraft below 400 ft AGL
    • D. Only other unmanned aircraft

    Why: The sUAS must yield to ALL aircraft, airborne vehicles, and launch/reentry vehicles, and may not pass over, under, or ahead of them unless well clear.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.37

  15. Operating a small UA from a moving land vehicle is permitted only:

    • A. Never, under any circumstances
    • B. Anywhere, as long as groundspeed stays under 100 mph
    • C. Over a sparsely populated area, and not transporting property for compensation Correct answer
    • D. At night with anti-collision lighting

    Why: 107.25(b) allows operating from a moving land or water-borne vehicle only over a sparsely populated area, and only if the small UA is not transporting another person's property for compensation or hire. 107.25(a) bars operating from a moving aircraft. Both limits can be waived under 107.205(a), but no waiver will be issued to allow carrying another person's property by aircraft for compensation or hire.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.25

  16. Dropping material from a small unmanned aircraft in flight is:

    • A. Always prohibited
    • B. Allowed only with a Part 107 waiver approved through the FAA DroneZone portal
    • C. Allowed only over your own property
    • D. Allowed if it creates no undue hazard to people or property Correct answer

    Why: 107.23 prohibits allowing an object to be dropped in a way that creates an undue hazard. A safe, controlled drop over a clear area is not itself illegal.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.23

  17. Before each flight, the remote pilot in command must:

    • A. Inspect the sUAS to ensure it is in a condition for safe operation Correct answer
    • B. File a flight plan with the FAA at least 24 hours before launch
    • C. Notify the nearest control tower
    • D. Log the flight in IACRA

    Why: 107.15(a) requires the remote pilot in command, prior to each flight, to check the small UAS to determine whether it is in a condition for safe operation. 107.49 adds other preflight actions: assess the operating environment (local weather, airspace and flight restrictions, persons and property on the surface, other ground hazards), brief everyone directly participating, and make sure the control links work, there is enough power for the intended operating time, and any attached object is secure.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.15(a); 107.49

  18. Who is directly responsible for, and the final authority on, the operation of a small unmanned aircraft system?

    • A. The drone's registered owner
    • B. The visual observer
    • C. The remote pilot in command Correct answer
    • D. The client who hired the flight

    Why: The RPIC is directly responsible for and is the final authority as to the operation of the sUAS.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.19

  19. How do you obtain authorization to operate in controlled airspace under Part 107?

    • A. From the airport manager
    • B. From local law enforcement
    • C. Through LAANC or the FAA DroneZone Correct answer
    • D. No authorization is needed if you stay below 400 ft

    Why: Prior authorization for Class B, C, D, or surface Class E airspace comes from the FAA โ€” in practice through LAANC for near-real-time approval, or DroneZone where LAANC is unavailable.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.41

  20. Which of the following operations requires a remote pilot certificate under Part 107?

    • A. Flying for fun in your backyard
    • B. Flying a drone indoors at home
    • C. A recreational park flight after completing TRUST
    • D. Photographing a house for a realtor's listing Correct answer

    Why: Any flight that furthers a business purpose โ€” like real-estate photography โ€” is non-recreational and requires Part 107 certification.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.1

  21. Refusing to submit to a lawful drug or alcohol test can result in:

    • A. Denial of an application, or suspension or revocation of the remote pilot certificate Correct answer
    • B. A written warning only
    • C. A mandatory retest within 30 days
    • D. No consequence under Part 107

    Why: Refusal to submit to testing is grounds for denying a certificate application for up to one year, or suspending/revoking the certificate.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.57, 107.59

  22. Which statement about visual observers (VOs) under Part 107 is true?

    • A. A VO is required for every commercial flight
    • B. VOs must hold their own remote pilot certificate
    • C. Using a VO is optional, and it does not remove the see-and-avoid responsibilities of the RPIC Correct answer
    • D. A VO may watch the aircraft through binoculars full-time

    Why: VOs are optional crew. Even with a VO, the RPIC and person flying must still be able to see the aircraft and maintain awareness; vision aids like binoculars may only be used momentarily.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.31, 107.33

  23. A client wants footage of an antenna tower that stands 700 ft tall. Staying within 400 ft of the structure, how high may you legally fly?

    • A. Up to 1,100 ft AGL Correct answer
    • B. Up to 400 ft AGL, because the Part 107 ceiling has no exception for tall structures
    • C. Up to 700 ft AGL, matching the height of the structure you are inspecting
    • D. Any altitude at all, as long as you remain within a 400-ft radius of the tower

    Why: Within a 400-ft radius of a structure you may fly up to 400 ft above that structure's uppermost limit, so 700 + 400 = 1,100 ft AGL. Step outside the radius and the plain 400-ft ceiling applies again.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.51(b)

  24. You are hired to film a parade, and cars carrying people are moving along the route beneath your planned flight path. Under Part 107:

    • A. flight over moving vehicles is unrestricted as long as you remain above 100 ft AGL
    • B. flight over moving vehicles is always prohibited, and no category of aircraft changes that
    • C. you may overfly the vehicles if every occupant consented to the operation in writing beforehand
    • D. sustained flight over moving vehicles requires an eligible category aircraft Correct answer

    Why: 107.145 allows flight over people inside moving vehicles only in a Category 1-4 operation, unless 107.145 is waived under 107.205(j). For Categories 1-3, the aircraft must stay within or over a closed- or restricted-access site whose vehicle occupants are on notice, or else must not maintain sustained flight over the moving vehicles, so outside such a site it may only transit (107.145(b)). A Category 4 aircraft instead needs an airworthiness certificate and Flight Manual limits that do not prohibit this operation (107.145(c)).

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.145, 107.39

  25. Your drone weighs 0.9 lb and you fly it only for paid real-estate photography. Registration is:

    • A. not required, because registration applies only to aircraft heavier than 55 lb
    • B. required only after you have completed your first ten paid jobs with that aircraft
    • C. required โ€” $5 per aircraft, marked on the exterior Correct answer
    • D. handled automatically by the manufacturer when the aircraft is first activated in its companion app

    Why: Under Part 107 every aircraft must be registered regardless of weight; the 250 g threshold applies only to recreational flying. Registration costs $5 per aircraft, lasts 3 years, and the number must be legible on the exterior.

    Reference: 14 CFR Part 48; 14 CFR 107.13

  26. A treeline will hide the aircraft from you for roughly 20 seconds during a planned route. Your lawful options are to:

    • A. fly the route and rely on the live video feed while the aircraft is behind the trees
    • B. reroute to keep the aircraft in sight, or hold a 107.31 waiver Correct answer
    • C. station a visual observer behind the treeline and continue, since the observer preserves line of sight
    • D. climb above 400 ft AGL for that segment so the aircraft stays visible over the trees

    Why: 107.31(a) requires the RPIC, the person manipulating the controls, and any visual observer all to be able to see the aircraft throughout the flight with unaided vision (corrective lenses only). A visual observer may be the one who keeps the aircraft in sight (107.31(b)(2)), but the RPIC and the person on the controls must keep the capability to see it (AC 107-2A 5.9.2), and the RPIC keeps the see-and-avoid responsibility (AC 107-2A 5.9), so an observer behind the trees does not cure a planned loss of sight. A video feed does not satisfy VLOS (AC 107-2A 5.9.1). Reroute, or hold a 107.31 waiver (107.205(c)).

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.31, 107.33, 107.205

  27. A paid shoot in Class G airspace will run until 45 minutes after official sunset. The flight is legal if:

    • A. the aircraft remains below 200 ft AGL for the entire post-sunset portion
    • B. a visual observer on site also holds a remote pilot certificate
    • C. the operation was filed as a night waiver in DroneZone at least 90 days in advance
    • D. the aircraft has anti-collision lighting visible for 3 statute miles Correct answer

    Why: Night flight is a standard privilege for pilots whose knowledge test or recurrent training covered night operations. The remaining hard requirement is anti-collision lighting visible for 3 SM with an adequate flash rate.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.29

  28. Which Part 107 rule may NOT be waived by the FAA?

    • A. The 400-ft altitude limit
    • B. The visual line of sight requirement
    • C. The restriction on operating from a moving vehicle over other than sparsely populated areas
    • D. The prohibition on carrying hazardous materials Correct answer

    Why: 107.205 lists the sections the FAA may waive, including altitude, visual line of sight, and operations over people. The hazardous materials prohibition in 107.36 is absent from that list and can never be waived.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.205, 107.36

  29. A Part 107 waiver application must demonstrate what?

    • A. That the same operation has already been flown safely at least once under a certificate of authorization
    • B. That no alternative method of complying with the rule exists for the proposed operation
    • C. That the applicant carries liability insurance appropriate to the scale of the operation
    • D. That the operation can be performed safely under the terms of the certificate Correct answer

    Why: The applicant must show the FAA that the proposed operation can be conducted safely under the waiver's terms, usually by describing the mitigations that replace the protection the waived rule provided.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.200

  30. How far ahead of a planned operation does the FAA advise submitting a waiver request?

    • A. At least 90 days Correct answer
    • B. At least 10 business days, which is the maximum processing time the FAA commits to
    • C. At least 24 hours, the same lead time that applies to airspace authorization requests
    • D. At least 30 calendar days, after which the request is approved automatically if the FAA has not replied

    Why: The FAA asks for at least 90 days because complex requests need review and rework. Nothing is ever approved by default; an unanswered request is simply not a waiver.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.200; FAA waiver guidance

  31. You plan a daylight flight at 300 ft AGL inside Class D airspace, within visual line of sight. The operation requires:

    • A. a 107.41 waiver, because any entry into controlled airspace is a deviation from Part 107
    • B. both an airspace authorization and an altitude waiver, since 300 ft exceeds the LAANC ceiling everywhere
    • C. nothing beyond the normal preflight, because Class D reverts to Class G below 400 ft AGL
    • D. an airspace authorization, not a waiver Correct answer

    Why: Entering controlled airspace with prior ATC authorization is compliance with 107.41, not a deviation from it. A waiver is needed only to depart from a waivable operating rule, and none of the limits here are being exceeded.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.41, 107.200

  32. A Certificate of Waiver is issued with special provisions attached. Those provisions:

    • A. may be disregarded whenever the remote pilot in command judges conditions to be safer than anticipated
    • B. are binding, and operating outside them voids the waiver Correct answer
    • C. apply only to the specific aircraft serial number that was listed in the application
    • D. expire 12 calendar months after issue regardless of the dates printed on the certificate

    Why: The provisions are the conditions on which the FAA accepted the risk. Flying outside them means flying without a waiver, so the underlying rule applies again and is being broken.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.200, 107.205

  33. Under subpart D, an operation over human beings may be conducted without a waiver when:

    • A. the people underneath are wearing head protection appropriate to the weight of the aircraft
    • B. the aircraft weighs less than 250 g and the entire flight is conducted below 100 ft AGL
    • C. the aircraft meets an eligible category and its operating requirements Correct answer
    • D. everyone underneath has been briefed on the operation and has given verbal consent

    Why: The old 107.39 already allowed flight over people who are directly participating or who are under a covered structure or inside a stationary vehicle. The 2021 rule kept those exceptions and added a third, 107.39(c): an operation that meets a subpart D category. Category 1 needs an aircraft of 0.55 lb or less with no exposed rotating parts that would lacerate skin (107.110). Categories 2 and 3 need an aircraft that meets injury-severity and no-laceration limits, is on an FAA-accepted declaration of compliance and is labelled (107.115-107.130). Category 4 needs an airworthiness certificate (107.140). Each category also has operating limits, such as Category 3's ban on flight over open-air assemblies (107.125(b)).

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.110 through 107.145

  34. How long is a Part 107 Certificate of Waiver valid?

    • A. For the period printed on the certificate Correct answer
    • B. Indefinitely, unless and until the FAA revokes it in writing for cause
    • C. For 24 calendar months, matching the remote pilot recurrent training cycle
    • D. For the duration of the single operation that was described in the waiver application

    Why: Each certificate of waiver states its own effective dates, and terms vary widely: the FAA's published list includes 2026 certificates lasting one week and others lasting four years. Every certificate is also subject to cancellation at any time upon notice by the Administrator, and 107.200 requires the holder to comply with its conditions and limitations. Read the certificate rather than assuming a fixed term.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.200 Waiver policy and requirements; AC 107-2A para 5.20 Certificate of Waiver; FAA Part 107 Waivers Issued (faa.gov), certificate effective-period and cancellation clauses

  35. Since the 2021 rule change, conducting a Part 107 operation at night requires:

    • A. a 107.29 waiver, applied for through DroneZone at least 90 days in advance
    • B. a 107.29 waiver, but only when the flight also passes over people or moving vehicles
    • C. no additional action of any kind, because the FAA removed the night restriction from Part 107 entirely
    • D. updated recurrent training plus anti-collision lighting visible for 3 statute miles Correct answer

    Why: The waiver requirement was removed, but two conditions replaced it: training that covers night operations, and anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles. Removing the waiver did not remove the rule.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.29, 107.65

  36. Which of the following still requires a waiver rather than a routine authorization or a standard preflight step?

    • A. Flying beyond visual line of sight Correct answer
    • B. Flying at night with anti-collision lighting fitted to the aircraft
    • C. Flying in Class C airspace at an altitude that LAANC has approved
    • D. Climbing to 400 ft above a tower while remaining within 400 ft of it

    Why: Beyond visual line of sight is a deviation from 107.31 and needs a Certificate of Waiver. The other three are ordinary compliant operations, one of which needs an airspace authorization rather than a waiver.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.31, 107.51, 107.200

  37. Section 107.23 prohibits operating a small unmanned aircraft in a careless or reckless manner. This section:

    • A. applies only when the operation results in an accident that has to be reported to the FAA
    • B. may be waived for closed-set filming when a site safety plan accompanies the application
    • C. applies only to operations flown for compensation or hire rather than recreationally
    • D. is a catch-all the FAA can cite even when no other rule was broken Correct answer

    Why: Careless or reckless operation stands on its own. An operation can comply with every numeric limit in Part 107 and still be cited under 107.23, and the section is not on the list of rules the FAA may waive.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.23, 107.205

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