Part 107 Airspace Practice Test

Airspace and sectional charts are 15–25% of the exam — and the section test-takers most often fail, because it borrows from manned-pilot territory: solid vs dashed lines, magenta vignettes, MEF figures, and stadium TFRs. Drill these 38 questions until the chart symbology is automatic. Shaky on the basics? Read Airspace Classes Explained first.

Prefer to read? Jump to all 38 questions with answers ↓

Keep momentum: the weather practice test covers the other chart-heavy area, and the full mock exam mixes them at real exam weighting.

All 38 airspace questions, with answers and references

The drill above shuffles the answer choices on every attempt. Below is the same 38-question set written out in full, in a fixed order, so you can read it straight through, print it, or check a single rule without restarting a quiz. Each answer carries the reasoning and the FAA source it rests on.

  1. What ATC authorization is required to fly a small UA in Class G airspace?

    • A. LAANC authorization
    • B. A DroneZone waiver
    • C. Verbal approval from the nearest tower
    • D. None — Class G is uncontrolled airspace Correct answer

    Why: Class G is uncontrolled; no airspace authorization is required there under Part 107. All other operating rules still apply.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.41

  2. On a VFR sectional chart, a dashed blue line around an airport depicts which airspace?

    • A. Class B
    • B. Class C
    • C. Class D Correct answer
    • D. Class E at the surface

    Why: Class D airspace (smaller towered airports) is charted with a dashed blue line, typically from the surface to about 2,500 ft AGL.

    Reference: Remote Pilot ACS UA.II; sectional legend

  3. Solid magenta lines on a sectional chart depict which airspace class?

    • A. Class B
    • B. Class C Correct answer
    • C. Class D
    • D. Surface Class E

    Why: Class C — mid-size towered airports with radar services — is depicted with solid magenta rings (typically a 5-NM core plus an outer shelf).

    Reference: Sectional chart legend

  4. Solid blue lines on a sectional chart depict which airspace class?

    • A. Class B Correct answer
    • B. Class C
    • C. Class D
    • D. Class G uncontrolled airspace

    Why: Class B surrounds the busiest airports and is charted with solid blue lines, usually as stacked shelves like an upside-down wedding cake.

    Reference: Sectional chart legend

  5. A dashed magenta line around an airport indicates:

    • A. Class C airspace
    • B. Class E airspace beginning at the surface Correct answer
    • C. Class D airspace
    • D. A military operations area with active training routes

    Why: Dashed magenta = surface Class E. It is controlled airspace at ground level, so drone flights there need FAA authorization.

    Reference: Sectional chart legend

  6. Which airspace classes require ATC authorization before a Part 107 flight?

    • A. Only Class B
    • B. Class B and C only
    • C. Class B, C, D, and surface Class E Correct answer
    • D. All airspace classes, including uncontrolled Class G

    Why: Controlled airspace for drones means B, C, D, and the surface areas of Class E. Class G needs no authorization.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.41

  7. The fuzzy magenta shading (vignette) on a sectional chart shows:

    • A. Class E airspace beginning at 700 ft AGL Correct answer
    • B. Class E airspace at the surface
    • C. A restricted area boundary
    • D. Class G airspace above 1,200 ft AGL in that area

    Why: Inside the magenta vignette, Class E starts at 700 ft AGL (elsewhere it generally starts at 1,200 ft). Drones below 400 ft rarely touch it — but surface Class E is different.

    Reference: Sectional chart legend

  8. An area charted as 'P-56' is:

    • A. A practice area reserved for student pilot training flights
    • B. A prohibited area where flight is not allowed Correct answer
    • C. A parachute drop zone
    • D. A Class E extension

    Why: 'P' plus a number designates a prohibited area (P-56 covers the White House and National Mall area). Drone flight there is prohibited.

    Reference: Remote Pilot ACS UA.II; chart legend

  9. Restricted areas (charted 'R-' plus a number) typically contain what kind of hazard?

    • A. Parachute jumping activity only
    • B. Wildlife sanctuaries
    • C. Hazards such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles Correct answer
    • D. High volumes of student pilot training

    Why: Restricted areas hold invisible hazards to aircraft. When active, entry requires permission from the controlling agency.

    Reference: Chart legend; FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide

  10. What does a Military Operations Area (MOA) mean for a small UA pilot?

    • A. Drone flight is prohibited at all times
    • B. Military training occurs there — flight is not prohibited, but exercise extreme caution Correct answer
    • C. LAANC authorization is mandatory
    • D. Only military drones may fly

    Why: MOAs separate military training from IFR traffic. Drones are not banned, but fast low-flying military aircraft demand extra vigilance.

    Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide

  11. Where would you find current information about a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR)?

    • A. The sectional chart legend
    • B. METAR reports
    • C. NOTAMs Correct answer
    • D. The Chart Supplement

    Why: TFRs are issued and updated through Notices to Air Missions (NOTAMs). Sectionals are printed too infrequently to show them.

    Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide

  12. The Maximum Elevation Figure (MEF) printed in each quadrant of a sectional chart represents:

    • A. The height above ground of the tallest man-made obstacle in that quadrant, in feet AGL
    • B. The elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle in that quadrant, in feet MSL Correct answer
    • C. The airport field elevation
    • D. The maximum altitude for drone operations

    Why: MEF gives the highest known feature in the quadrangle, rounded up, in thousands and hundreds of feet MSL.

    Reference: Sectional chart legend

  13. An MEF shown as a large '2' with a small '3' means the highest feature in that quadrant is approximately:

    • A. 230 ft MSL
    • B. 2,300 ft AGL
    • C. 23,000 ft MSL
    • D. 2,300 ft MSL Correct answer

    Why: Read MEF as thousands then hundreds of feet MSL: 2 and 3 = 2,300 ft MSL.

    Reference: Sectional chart legend

  14. An airport symbol printed in magenta on a sectional chart tells you the airport:

    • A. Has an operating control tower
    • B. Is a military field with prior-permission-required rules
    • C. Does not have an operating control tower Correct answer
    • D. Is closed to all traffic

    Why: Blue airports are towered; magenta airports are non-towered. Near magenta airports, monitor the CTAF for traffic awareness.

    Reference: Sectional chart legend

  15. Next to an airport, the sectional chart shows 'CT - 118.3'. What does this mean?

    • A. The control tower frequency is 118.3 Correct answer
    • B. The field elevation is 1,183 ft MSL
    • C. The CTAF is unavailable at this field
    • D. Runway 11/83 is in use

    Why: 'CT' identifies the control tower frequency. Monitoring it (or the CTAF at non-towered fields) builds situational awareness about nearby manned traffic.

    Reference: Sectional chart legend

  16. The standing stadium TFR restricts flight near major sporting events within what radius and time window?

    • A. 5 NM radius, all day on game day
    • B. 10 NM radius during the event
    • C. 1 NM radius, during the event only
    • D. 3 NM radius, from 1 hour before until 1 hour after the event Correct answer

    Why: Flights are restricted within 3 NM of qualifying stadium events (MLB, NFL, NCAA Division I football, major races) from one hour before to one hour after.

    Reference: FDC NOTAM 4/3621 (stadium TFR)

  17. Part 107 requires that operations near an airport must not:

    • A. Interfere with airport operations or traffic patterns Correct answer
    • B. Occur within 5 NM under any circumstances
    • C. Occur without a radio call on the CTAF
    • D. Occur without the airport manager's prior written approval on file

    Why: 107.43 prohibits interfering with operations and traffic patterns at any airport, heliport, or seaplane base. In Class G near an airport you may fly, but must stay clear of traffic.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.43

  18. Lines of longitude on aeronautical charts:

    • A. Run east-west around the globe and measure angular distance north or south of the equator
    • B. Run north-south and are measured east or west of the Prime Meridian Correct answer
    • C. Run parallel to the equator
    • D. Exist only in the Northern Hemisphere

    Why: Meridians of longitude run pole to pole and are measured 0-180° east or west from Greenwich. Latitude lines run east-west, measured from the equator.

    Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide

  19. An obstacle on a sectional chart shows a bold number with a second number in parentheses. These represent:

    • A. Both heights above ground level
    • B. The bold figure is height AGL; the figure in parentheses is MSL
    • C. Both heights above mean sea level
    • D. Bold is MSL; the number in parentheses is AGL Correct answer

    Why: The bold figure is the obstacle top in feet MSL; the parenthetical figure is its height AGL. Useful for judging clearance from your launch elevation.

    Reference: Sectional chart legend

  20. Which statement about LAANC is correct?

    • A. It guarantees separation from manned traffic
    • B. It files a flight plan for you
    • C. It provides near-real-time authorization up to the published UAS Facility Map ceiling Correct answer
    • D. It replaces aircraft registration

    Why: LAANC issues automated authorizations for controlled airspace up to the grid ceiling shown on UAS Facility Maps. Seeing and avoiding traffic remains your job.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.41; FAA LAANC guidance

  21. A dashed blue line encircles an airport 4 NM from your job site, and a boxed [25] sits inside the ring. You plan to fly at 300 ft AGL from a park inside that ring. What is required?

    • A. Nothing — the [25] means that airspace begins at 2,500 ft MSL, far above your planned altitude
    • B. A written waiver from the airport manager before each flight conducted inside the ring
    • C. Only a NOTAM filed with Flight Service at least one hour before you launch the aircraft
    • D. FAA airspace authorization, normally through LAANC Correct answer

    Why: The boxed number is the Class D CEILING in hundreds of feet MSL (2,500 ft), not a floor. Class D extends down to the surface, so any Part 107 flight inside the dashed blue ring needs prior FAA authorization.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.41; sectional chart legend

  22. Your launch site sits under the faded magenta vignette but outside any dashed line. You will fly at 350 ft AGL. What authorization do you need?

    • A. None — you are in Class G below 700 ft AGL Correct answer
    • B. LAANC authorization for surface Class E, which the vignette depicts around every non-towered airport
    • C. A 107.41 waiver through FAA DroneZone, because the vignette marks controlled airspace at the surface
    • D. Verbal permission from the nearest control tower on the CTAF frequency

    Why: The fuzzy magenta vignette marks where Class E begins at 700 ft AGL. Below that floor the airspace is Class G, so no authorization is required. It is the dashed magenta line, not the vignette, that marks surface Class E.

    Reference: Sectional chart legend; 14 CFR 107.41

  23. The UAS Facility Map grid covering your site inside Class D airspace reads 0. This means:

    • A. LAANC is unavailable in that county, so you may fly there without any authorization
    • B. You may fly up to 100 ft AGL, because grid values are published in hundreds of feet
    • C. The airspace is closed to all aircraft, both manned and unmanned, until further notice
    • D. No LAANC auto-approval — request authorization through DroneZone Correct answer

    Why: A 0-ft grid means the FAA has pre-approved no altitude at that location. LAANC will reject the request, so authorization must go through the DroneZone further-coordination process, which can take up to 90 days.

    Reference: FAA UAS Facility Maps; 14 CFR 107.41

  24. Directly above your site, the Class B chart segment reads 100/40. That tells you Class B in that sector:

    • A. runs from 4,000 ft MSL up to 10,000 ft MSL Correct answer
    • B. runs from 4,000 ft AGL up to 10,000 ft AGL, measured from the ground directly beneath you
    • C. extends from the surface up to 10,000 ft MSL and has a 40 NM outer ring
    • D. applies only to aircraft heavier than 10,000 lb operating above 4,000 ft

    Why: Class B shelves are charted as ceiling over floor in hundreds of feet MSL, so 100/40 is a 4,000 ft MSL floor and a 10,000 ft MSL ceiling. Below the shelf floor you are not in Class B, but always check for a surface area nearby.

    Reference: Sectional chart legend

  25. A non-towered airport 2 NM away is ringed by a dashed magenta line. You intend to fly at 200 ft AGL inside that ring. You must:

    • A. self-announce your intentions on the CTAF before every takeoff and every landing
    • B. stay at or below 400 ft AGL, which is all that Part 107 asks of you at that location
    • C. notify the airport operator in writing at least 24 hours before the planned flight
    • D. obtain FAA airspace authorization before flying Correct answer

    Why: A dashed magenta line is Class E beginning at the surface — controlled airspace at ground level. Your altitude is irrelevant; any Part 107 flight inside that boundary needs prior FAA authorization.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.41; sectional chart legend

  26. Your site falls inside an area charted as 'A-211'. For a Part 107 pilot this means:

    • A. Flight is prohibited at all times unless the using agency grants written permission in advance
    • B. Heavy pilot training may occur there; no authorization is needed, but stay vigilant Correct answer
    • C. The area is a Temporary Flight Restriction that will expire within 24 hours of activation
    • D. The airspace is Class A, so Part 107 operations are not possible at that location

    Why: Alert Areas (the A- prefix) flag a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity. They impose no entry restriction on Part 107 flights, but manned traffic there can be dense and unpredictable.

    Reference: AIM 3-4-6; sectional chart legend

  27. An airport data block on the sectional reads: RIVERTON (RVT) 53 L 72 122.8. The 72 means:

    • A. the longest runway is about 7,200 ft Correct answer
    • B. the field elevation is 7,200 ft above mean sea level at the airport reference point
    • C. the recommended traffic pattern altitude at that field is 720 ft above ground level
    • D. the airport currently has 72 based aircraft on the field

    Why: An airport data block runs elevation, lighting, then longest runway length in hundreds of feet. Here 53 is the field elevation, L means lighting is available, 72 is a 7,200 ft runway, and 122.8 is the CTAF.

    Reference: Sectional chart legend

  28. Two hours before a scheduled roof inspection you learn that a VIP TFR now covers the site. You should:

    • A. fly anyway below 200 ft AGL, since TFRs restrict only manned aircraft above 500 ft
    • B. call local law enforcement and request a spot exemption for a short commercial flight
    • C. launch immediately, before the effective time published in the NOTAM takes hold
    • D. cancel or reschedule the flight Correct answer

    Why: TFRs apply to unmanned aircraft too, and violating one risks certificate action plus federal penalties. No local authority can waive a TFR, so reschedule and re-check NOTAMs or B4UFLY before every flight.

    Reference: 14 CFR 91.137-91.145; FAA NOTAM guidance

  29. On a sectional chart, a soft blue vignette (a wide, fuzzy blue band) marks a boundary. What does it separate?

    • A. Class D airspace from Class C airspace
    • B. Airspace where a Part 107 pilot must obtain ATC authorization from airspace where no authorization is required
    • C. Areas where the Class E floor is 1,200 ft AGL from areas where it starts higher Correct answer
    • D. Two adjacent Maximum Elevation Figure quadrants

    Why: A soft magenta vignette marks a 700 ft AGL Class E floor; a soft blue one marks the edge of the 1,200 ft AGL Class E floor, with the higher floor on the shaded side. Neither changes much at 400 ft AGL, where you are in Class G under both. The dashed and solid boundary lines, not the vignettes, are what drive your authorization decision.

    Reference: FAA Chart User's Guide ch. 3; 14 CFR 71.71

  30. Above your job site the Class C chart segment reads 41 over 13. What does that tell you?

    • A. Class C in that sector runs from 1,300 ft MSL up to 4,100 ft MSL Correct answer
    • B. Class C in that sector runs from 1,300 ft AGL to 4,100 ft AGL
    • C. Class C runs from the surface to 4,100 ft MSL
    • D. The ceiling is 41,000 ft and the floor is 1,300 ft

    Why: Class B and Class C segment numbers are hundreds of feet MSL, so 41/13 means a 4,100 ft MSL ceiling over a 1,300 ft MSL floor. SFC in the bottom position would mean the segment reaches the ground. A Part 107 flight capped at 400 ft AGL normally sits below a 1,300 ft MSL floor, but the lateral boundary still matters wherever the segment does reach the surface.

    Reference: FAA Chart User's Guide; 14 CFR 71.51

  31. Your site is 18 NM from a Class B primary airport, inside the thin magenta ring that depicts the 30 NM Mode C veil. For a Part 107 flight at 200 ft AGL, the veil means:

    • A. ATC authorization is required, because the veil is controlled airspace
    • B. The aircraft must carry an operating transponder
    • C. A LAANC request must be filed even where the underlying airspace is Class G, because the veil overrides the class beneath it
    • D. Nothing by itself - it is a transponder rule for manned aircraft Correct answer

    Why: The 30 NM Mode C veil requires manned aircraft to carry an operating transponder. It is not an airspace class and imposes nothing on a Part 107 operation. Your authorization requirement comes from the airspace class where you actually fly, so read the dashed and solid boundary lines and the UAS Facility Map, not the veil ring.

    Reference: 14 CFR 91.215; 14 CFR 107.41

  32. A dashed blue line rings the airport beside your site, and a chart note reads 'See NOTAMs/Directory for Class E (sfc) eff hrs.' You plan to fly after the tower closes. What determines whether you need authorization?

    • A. The dashed blue line always means Class D, so authorization is required at any hour
    • B. The airspace class in effect at the time you fly Correct answer
    • C. Nothing, because Class D ceases to exist when the tower closes and the surface area always reverts to Class G
    • D. The UAS Facility Map grid value, which applies only during published tower hours

    Why: Part-time Class D reverts at closing time to either a Class E surface area or Class G, depending on the chart note and current NOTAMs. A Class E surface area is still controlled airspace and still requires authorization; Class G does not. Check the effective hours instead of assuming it goes either way.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.41; FAA Chart User's Guide

  33. Your coastal survey route crosses an area charted 'W-72'. A Part 107 pilot should read that as:

    • A. Airspace over international waters that may contain hazardous activity Correct answer
    • B. Prohibited airspace closed to all civil aircraft
    • C. Class B airspace
    • D. A Temporary Flight Restriction

    Why: A Warning Area (W-) starts 3 NM out from the U.S. coast, over international waters, and warns of activity hazardous to non-participating aircraft. The United States cannot prohibit flight there, so entry is legal even though the hazard is real. Closer in than 3 NM you would be meeting a Restricted Area instead, which does carry a legal restriction.

    Reference: 14 CFR part 73; FAA Chart User's Guide

  34. The FAA has published a UAS-specific flight restriction over a nearby military installation under 14 CFR 99.7. Where do you find its lateral limits and altitude?

    • A. It is drawn as a solid magenta ring on the sectional chart
    • B. It is published only in the Chart Supplement, under the nearest airport's entry
    • C. On the FAA's UAS Data Delivery System map and in NOTAMs Correct answer
    • D. It is not published - you must telephone the installation's operations desk for coordinates before each flight

    Why: National Security UAS Flight Restrictions cover selected DoD, DOE, and Coast Guard sites. They are not airspace classes and do not appear as chart rings, so a clean-looking sectional will not warn you about one. They are published on the FAA UAS Data Delivery System interactive map and by NOTAM, they run from the surface up, and no LAANC authorization exists for them.

    Reference: 14 CFR 99.7; FAA UAS Data Delivery System

  35. A client wants photos of a property 20 NM from the DCA VOR - inside the outer ring of the Washington DC Special Flight Rules Area but well outside the 15 NM Flight Restricted Zone. Which statement is correct?

    • A. The SFRA has no effect on Part 107 operations
    • B. Flight is prohibited anywhere inside the 30 NM SFRA
    • C. The SFRA replaces the underlying airspace classes, so LAANC authorization is never required anywhere inside its 30 NM ring
    • D. Part 107 flight is allowed there, subject to the SFRA's restrictions and to authorization for the underlying airspace Correct answer

    Why: The DC SFRA extends 30 NM from the DCA VOR. Inside the 15 NM Flight Restricted Zone, drone flight is effectively barred without specific federal authorization. Between 15 and 30 NM you may fly under Part 107, but the SFRA's restrictions sit on top of the normal rules and any controlled airspace inside the ring still needs its own authorization.

    Reference: 14 CFR part 93 subpart V; FAA DC SFRA guidance

  36. Overhead your site the Class B segment is charted 80 over 30. Field elevation is 500 ft MSL and you plan to fly at 300 ft AGL. Do you need Class B authorization?

    • A. Yes - being laterally inside the Class B ring is what triggers the requirement
    • B. No - the flight stays below the 3,000 ft MSL floor of that segment Correct answer
    • C. Yes, because 300 ft AGL converts to 800 ft MSL, which is above the floor
    • D. Only if the UAS Facility Map grid for the site reads 0, which it always does inside a Class B ring

    Why: Class B is only the charted volume. A segment marked 80/30 runs from 3,000 ft MSL to 8,000 ft MSL, so a flight topping out near 800 ft MSL passes underneath it, in whatever Class E or G lies below. No Class B authorization is needed - but check separately for a Class D or Class E surface area sitting under the shelf.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.41; FAA Chart User's Guide

  37. A client asks you to film a waterfall inside a national park. Which statement is correct?

    • A. The National Park Service prohibits launching and landing in most parks, while the FAA controls the airspace above Correct answer
    • B. The FAA prohibits flight over national parks below 2,000 ft AGL
    • C. Part 107 preempts all other rules, so no permission of any kind is needed
    • D. A LAANC authorization covers it, since parks are charted as restricted areas

    Why: Airspace is federal: the FAA regulates it and the Park Service cannot close it. The Park Service does control the ground, and 36 CFR 1.5 closures bar launching, landing, or operating from park land in most units. The FAA's request to stay 2,000 ft above noise-sensitive areas is advisory, not a Part 107 rule.

    Reference: 36 CFR 1.5; FAA AC 91-36 (advisory)

  38. A dashed magenta keyhole extends about 3 NM off one side of an airport's dashed magenta circle, and your launch point falls inside that extension. What does that mean for your flight?

    • A. The extension is Class G, so no authorization is required
    • B. It is Class D airspace and the tower must be telephoned before launch
    • C. It is part of the Class E surface area and needs authorization just as the circle does Correct answer
    • D. It marks a published instrument approach advisory and carries no authorization requirement of its own

    Why: Class E surface area extensions exist to protect aircraft flying instrument approaches, which is precisely why they are drawn where arriving traffic is low and slow. They are the same airspace class as the circle they hang off, so a Part 107 flight inside one needs authorization - and the approach traffic overhead is the real reason to care.

    Reference: 14 CFR 107.41; FAA Chart User's Guide

Ready for the real format? Take the full 60-question timed mock exam, which draws from all seven topics using the FAA's published area weighting.