Part 107 Operations Practice Test

Operations is the biggest block on the exam at 35–45%: the five hazardous attitudes and their exact antidotes, IMSAFE, crew resource management, hyperventilation and night vision, CTAF radio calls, lost-link and battery-fire emergencies. These 46 questions cover the patterns the FAA loves to test. Memorize the antidotes word-for-word — the exam rewards it.

Prefer to read? Jump to all 46 questions with answers ↓

Operations questions also draw on night operations and Remote ID — finish those two short drills, then run the full mock exam.

All 46 operations questions, with answers and references

The drill above shuffles the answer choices on every attempt. Below is the same 46-question set written out in full, in a fixed order, so you can read it straight through, print it, or check a single rule without restarting a quiz. Each answer carries the reasoning and the FAA source it rests on.

What is the antidote for the hazardous attitude of ANTI-AUTHORITY ('Don't tell me what to do')?
- A. Not so fast — think first
- B. Taking chances is foolish and rarely pays off
- C. Follow the rules — they are usually right Correct answer
- D. It could happen to me
Why: Each hazardous attitude has a memorized antidote. Anti-authority is countered with 'Follow the rules. They are usually right.'

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide; PHAK ch. 2
What is the antidote for IMPULSIVITY ('Do it quickly')?
- A. Follow the rules — they are usually right
- B. Not so fast — think first Correct answer
- C. I'm not helpless
- D. It could happen to me
Why: Impulsivity is countered by deliberately slowing down: 'Not so fast. Think first.'

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide; PHAK ch. 2
What is the antidote for INVULNERABILITY ('It won't happen to me')?
- A. Not so fast — think first
- B. It could happen to me Correct answer
- C. Follow the rules
- D. Taking chances is foolish
Why: Believing accidents only happen to others is countered with 'It could happen to me.'

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide; PHAK ch. 2
What is the antidote for MACHO ('I can do it')?
- A. I'm not helpless
- B. It could happen to me
- C. Taking chances is foolish Correct answer
- D. Follow the rules — they are usually right
Why: The show-off attitude is countered with 'Taking chances is foolish.'

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide; PHAK ch. 2
What is the antidote for RESIGNATION ('What's the use?')?
- A. Not so fast — think first
- B. Follow the rules
- C. I'm not helpless — I can make a difference Correct answer
- D. It could happen to me
Why: Resignation is countered with 'I'm not helpless. I can make a difference.'

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide; PHAK ch. 2
The IMSAFE checklist helps a pilot self-assess fitness to operate. What does it stand for?
- A. Inspection, Maintenance, Safety, Airspace, Flight plan, Emergency
- B. Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion Correct answer
- C. Instruments, Meteorology, Systems, Airframe, Fuel, Electronics
- D. Identify, Measure, Set, Act, Fly, Evaluate
Why: IMSAFE = Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion — a personal go/no-go checklist before any operation.

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide; PHAK ch. 2
Crew Resource Management (CRM) is best defined as:
- A. A checklist-reading method
- B. A radio phraseology standard
- C. Effective use of ALL available resources — people, hardware, and information Correct answer
- D. A maintenance scheduling system
Why: CRM means integrating your crew (VOs, camera operators), equipment, and information sources to maximize safety — it applies to sUAS crews, not just airliners.

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide
Situational awareness is best described as:
- A. Knowing only your GPS position
- B. Watching the aircraft at all times
- C. Reading back all radio calls
- D. Accurate perception of all factors and conditions affecting flight safety Correct answer
Why: It covers the aircraft, environment, people, and time — the four risk elements — not just where the drone is right now.

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide
A crew member is dizzy and tingling after breathing rapidly during a stressful launch. The best response to this hyperventilation is to:
- A. Breathe faster and deeper
- B. Administer supplemental oxygen
- C. Consciously slow the breathing rate — talking aloud or breathing into a bag helps Correct answer
- D. Call EMS immediately in every case
Why: Hyperventilation flushes too much CO2. Slowing the breathing rate restores the balance; symptoms then resolve.

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide; AIM ch. 8 concepts
Before operating after taking an over-the-counter medication, you should:
- A. Fly anyway — only prescription drugs matter
- B. Check the label and side effects, and do not operate if it may impair you Correct answer
- C. Halve the dose
- D. Rely on a strong cup of coffee to fully offset any drowsiness the medication causes
Why: Many OTC antihistamines and cold medicines impair judgment and reaction time. Self-grounding is the pilot's responsibility.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.17; FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide
Which statement about stress is most accurate?
- A. It improves focus in all situations
- B. It only matters when stress reaches immediately life-threatening levels
- C. It vanishes once the flight begins
- D. Its effects are cumulative and can degrade judgment and performance Correct answer
Why: Stress from work, life, and the operation itself stacks up and narrows attention — a core ADM concept on the exam.

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide
The most effective daytime technique for scanning for other aircraft is:
- A. One continuous sweep of the horizon
- B. A systematic series of short, regularly spaced eye movements in roughly 10° segments Correct answer
- C. Staring at a fixed point ahead
- D. Relying on peripheral vision alone
Why: Eyes detect motion poorly while moving. Short fixations across 10° blocks let each segment come into focus.

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide; AIM 8-1-6 concepts
Which statement about the preflight crew briefing is correct?
- A. It is optional for a crew of two
- B. It is required only for night operations
- C. It should happen only after an incident
- D. It should assign roles, communication procedures, and contingencies before flight Correct answer
Why: 107.49 requires ensuring all persons involved know their roles, emergency procedures, and how the crew will communicate — before takeoff.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.49
What maintenance standard does Part 107 set for small unmanned aircraft?
- A. An FAA annual inspection
- B. A 100-hour inspection by a mechanic
- C. Keeping the aircraft in a condition for safe operation, checked before each flight Correct answer
- D. A notarized maintenance logbook reviewed and stamped annually by an FAA-certificated mechanic
Why: There is no formal inspection regime; the RPIC must not operate an sUAS unless it is in a condition for safe operation, verified preflight.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.15, 107.49
You notice smoke from the battery compartment during flight over a work site. The best course of action is to:
- A. Climb to blow out the flames
- B. Continue the mission while monitoring the temperature readout closely
- C. Switch to the backup battery in flight
- D. Land as soon as safely possible, away from people Correct answer
Why: A thermal-runaway battery can fail totally within seconds. Get the aircraft on the ground clear of people and property immediately.

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide; ADM
Regarding lost-link (loss of control signal), the remote pilot should:
- A. Know the aircraft's programmed lost-link behavior before flight Correct answer
- B. Assume the aircraft will always crash
- C. Treat it as a reportable accident in every case
- D. Wait indefinitely for reconnection before acting
Why: Preflight planning includes knowing exactly what the aircraft will do on lost link (RTH altitude, hover time, land) and confirming those settings fit the site.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.49; ACS UA.V
Your drone stops responding and drifts toward a crowded street (a flyaway). You should:
- A. Do nothing — flyaways are unavoidable
- B. Follow your flyaway procedure, alert your crew, and warn bystanders if possible Correct answer
- C. Power off the controller and go home
- D. Pursue the aircraft in your car
Why: Execute the emergency procedure (regain link, activate failsafe), use your crew, and mitigate risk to people. Afterward, evaluate whether 107.9 reporting applies.

Reference: ACS UA.V; 14 CFR 107.9, 107.21
On the CTAF you hear: 'Hartsville traffic, Cessna 4-1-2, entering left downwind, runway one-eight.' This tells you:
- A. The position and intention of manned traffic near a non-towered airport Correct answer
- B. A control tower instruction that requires an immediate acknowledgment from you
- C. An aircraft declaring an emergency
- D. You are cleared to launch
Why: Self-announced position reports on the CTAF are your main tool for anticipating manned traffic near non-towered fields — drones listen, they do not need to transmit.

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide
If GPS signal degrades during a flight in a tight urban canyon, you should:
- A. Ignore it — GPS always recovers
- B. Climb steeply to regain signal
- C. Be prepared to fly in manual/attitude mode and consider landing Correct answer
- D. Immediately trigger return-to-home and let the automation handle everything
Why: GPS-degraded drones drift. Be ready for manual control, keep visual contact, and land if positioning is unreliable. Blind RTH near obstacles can cause a collision.

Reference: ACS UA.V; manufacturer guidance
Your drone has no Category rating for operations over people. A crowd starts gathering under your flight path. You should:
- A. Continue as long as you remain above 100 ft AGL over the crowd
- B. Speed up to spend less time overhead
- C. Reposition or land so you are no longer over people Correct answer
- D. Do nothing — brief overflight is permitted
Why: Without Category 1-4 eligibility, sustained flight over people not directly participating is prohibited — move the operation or pause until the area clears.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.39
Where must your remote pilot certificate be during operations?
- A. At home in a safe place
- B. Available for mailing to the FAA within 72 hours if requested
- C. Digital copies are prohibited
- D. Easily accessible to you during all sUAS operations Correct answer
Why: The certificate must be easily accessible during operations — physically or, practically, on your person — and presented on request.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.7
While filming near a small airport in Class G airspace, a helicopter enters the traffic pattern. Part 107 requires that you:
- A. Not interfere with airport operations or traffic patterns, yielding right of way Correct answer
- B. Contact the helicopter on the radio
- C. Land immediately and end all operations for the day
- D. Climb above the pattern altitude
Why: You may operate in Class G near an airport, but 107.43 and 107.37 require staying clear of patterns and yielding to all manned aircraft.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.37, 107.43
Which is the only real remedy for fatigue?
- A. Strong coffee
- B. Fresh air at the flight site
- C. Adequate sleep Correct answer
- D. Willpower and experience
Why: Stimulants mask symptoms briefly, but only sleep restores performance — fatigue degrades reaction time and judgment much like alcohol.

Reference: FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide
Prior to flight, the remote pilot in command must assess the operating environment, including:
- A. Local weather conditions, local airspace, and any ground hazards Correct answer
- B. Only the battery level
- C. Only the official TAF forecast at the nearest Class B international airport
- D. Nothing, if the flight is under 15 minutes
Why: 107.49 requires assessing weather, airspace and flight restrictions, people and property on the ground, and other ground hazards before every flight.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.49(a)
During takeoff and landing — the most critical phases — the crew should:
- A. Chat to stay relaxed
- B. Minimize non-essential conversation and distractions Correct answer
- C. Play the mission soundtrack
- D. Rotate crew roles between positions to build practice reps
Why: A 'sterile crew' discipline during critical phases keeps attention on the aircraft and its surroundings when risk is highest.

Reference: CRM concepts; FAA Remote Pilot Study Guide
For 'direct supervision' of a non-certificated person flying the drone, the RPIC must be able to:
- A. Monitor the aircraft's live video feed from a remote location
- B. Take immediate control of the small unmanned aircraft Correct answer
- C. Sign the person's logbook
- D. Stand within 10 feet of the person
Why: Direct supervision means the RPIC can immediately take over the controls — the legal basis for letting a trainee or camera operator fly.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.12, 107.19
The 3P risk-management model taught in FAA training stands for:
- A. Perceive, Process, Perform Correct answer
- B. Plan, Prepare, Proceed
- C. Predict, Prevent, Protect
- D. Preflight, Preview, Postflight, applied in sequence before each individual leg of the operation
Why: Perceive the hazards, Process the level of risk they represent, then Perform the risk management. It is a loop repeated throughout the operation, not a one-time preflight step.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25B Ch.2; Remote Pilot ACS
Under the PAVE checklist for preflight risk assessment, the 'E' stands for:
- A. Equipment
- B. External pressures Correct answer
- C. Endurance
- D. Emergency procedures rehearsed with the crew before every departure
Why: PAVE covers Pilot-in-command, Aircraft, enVironment, and External pressures. Deadlines, client expectations, and unpaid travel time are the category pilots most often leave out of the assessment.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25B Ch.2
A client offers a bonus if you finish the shoot before dark, but wind is now gusting above your aircraft's published limit. The best decision-making response is to:
- A. fly a shortened mission at reduced altitude, since less time aloft reduces total exposure to the gusts
- B. let the client decide, because they are paying for the operation
- C. fly only if a visual observer is added to the crew
- D. name the bonus as external pressure and reschedule Correct answer
Why: Exceeding the manufacturer's published wind limit is a hazard that neither extra crew nor a shorter profile removes. Identifying the incentive as external pressure is what makes the decision resistible.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25B Ch.2; 14 CFR 107.49
When a visual observer is used, Part 107 requires that the RPIC, the person manipulating the controls, and the VO:
- A. remain within 100 ft of each other at all times
- B. each hold their own remote pilot certificate
- C. be able to communicate effectively throughout the operation Correct answer
- D. coordinate on a radio frequency assigned for the operating area by the nearest air traffic control facility
Why: 107.33 requires effective communication among the crew at all times. The method is not specified, but hand signals across a distance that defeats reliable communication do not satisfy the rule.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.33
A risk assessment matrix rates a hazard by:
- A. the likelihood of the occurrence and the severity of its outcome Correct answer
- B. its cost and its duration
- C. the altitude and airspeed at which it occurs
- D. the number of crew members available
Why: The matrix crosses how likely an event is against how bad the result would be. Neither factor alone decides acceptability; a rare event with catastrophic consequences still demands mitigation.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25B Ch.2
After a near-miss with a helicopter that did not meet the 107.9 reporting threshold, the most useful next action is to:
- A. take no action, because no report is required
- B. debrief the crew and revise the site's hazard assessment Correct answer
- C. submit an accident report anyway so a record exists
- D. abandon the site permanently and tell the client the location cannot be flown under any conditions
Why: Reportability and learning are separate questions. A debrief that feeds back into the site hazard assessment is what prevents a second occurrence; a voluntary ASRS filing is also available.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25B Ch.2; 14 CFR 107.9
Mid-flight, a bystander walks up and begins asking questions about your drone. The best response is to:
- A. hand the controls to the bystander briefly, since direct supervision by an RPIC makes that lawful
- B. answer while continuing to fly, to protect the client's schedule
- C. ignore the person completely until the battery is exhausted
- D. keep your eyes on the aircraft and defer the conversation, or land first Correct answer
Why: Visual line of sight and see-and-avoid do not pause for conversation. Deferring the exchange, or landing before engaging, keeps the RPIC's attention where 107.31 requires it to be.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.19, 107.31
Your aircraft has forward obstacle-avoidance sensors. When planning a route through a tree-lined corridor, you should treat those sensors as:
- A. a substitute for visual line of sight inside the corridor
- B. an assurance that the aircraft will stop short of any obstacle
- C. a backup that may not detect thin branches or wires Correct answer
- D. sufficient justification for operating beyond visual line of sight without a waiver whenever the sensors are functioning normally
Why: Obstacle sensors routinely miss thin, low-contrast objects such as wires, branches, and netting. They reduce risk but transfer none of the RPIC's responsibility and relax nothing in 107.31.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.31, 107.49; FAA-H-8083-25B Ch.2
Two certificated remote pilots share a long inspection job. Regarding the role of remote pilot in command:
- A. only one person is RPIC at any moment, and the handoff must be briefed Correct answer
- B. both may serve as RPIC at the same time so responsibility is shared
- C. the RPIC role transfers automatically whenever the controls change hands
- D. the aircraft's registered owner remains RPIC for the whole operation regardless of who is flying it that day
Why: There is exactly one RPIC at a time and that person is the final authority. Holding the controls and holding the RPIC role are separate things, so a shift change is a deliberate, briefed handoff.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.12, 107.19
Battery voltage is dropping faster than planned and one inspection panel is still unshot. The RPIC should:
- A. descend to conserve power and finish the last panel
- B. land, change the battery, and resume Correct answer
- C. continue, because the aircraft's low-battery warning has not triggered yet
- D. hand the controls to the visual observer, whose fresher attention will finish the last panel more quickly
Why: Pressing on to finish the job is completion bias. A precautionary landing costs a few minutes; a forced landing over the asset costs the aircraft. The remaining panel is a second flight.

Reference: FAA-H-8083-25B Ch.2; 14 CFR 107.49
You want to fly an entire shoot through FPV goggles. Under Part 107 that is:
- A. Prohibited outright
- B. Allowed without conditions, because the goggles give you a better view of the aircraft than your own eyes do
- C. Allowed only with a 107.31 waiver approved in advance
- D. Allowed only if a visual observer keeps the aircraft in unaided visual line of sight Correct answer
Why: Someone must keep the aircraft in sight without aid at all times, and goggles end that for the pilot. The RPIC therefore needs a visual observer who can see the aircraft and stay in immediate communication. No waiver is required for FPV as long as the observer satisfies the line-of-sight rule.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.31, 107.33
Which of the following satisfies the visual line of sight requirement?
- A. Watching the aircraft through binoculars once it is far enough away to be hard to see
- B. Wearing your prescription glasses Correct answer
- C. Following the aircraft on the controller's live camera feed
- D. Tracking the aircraft on the map display and looking up whenever the app flags a change of heading
Why: Vision must be unaided, with corrective lenses the single exception. Binoculars, telephoto screens, and map displays are all aids. You may use any of them to gather information, but at every moment you must still be able to see the aircraft without them.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.31
Before an inspection flight in a yard ringed by 120 ft trees and a 90 ft crane, you notice the aircraft's return-to-home altitude is set to 60 ft. You should:
- A. Raise it above the tallest obstacle on the site Correct answer
- B. Leave it - return-to-home always climbs to clear whatever it detects on the way
- C. Lower it to 30 ft so the aircraft stays beneath the tree canopy on the way back
- D. Disable return-to-home entirely, since one fixed altitude cannot be correct across a site with mixed obstacle heights
Why: Return-to-home typically climbs to the set altitude and then flies a straight line home. At 60 ft that line runs through the trees. Set it above the tallest obstacle before launch, because the feature triggers exactly when you have the least ability to intervene.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.49; manufacturer operating limitations
You launch from a steel loading dock and the aircraft yaws and drifts unexpectedly right after takeoff. The most likely cause is:
- A. A GPS constellation outage
- B. Low battery voltage
- C. Magnetic interference from the launch surface corrupting the compass Correct answer
- D. Control link interference from the building's Wi-Fi, which shares the 2.4 GHz band with most controllers
Why: Steel decks, rebar, manhole covers, and vehicle roofs distort the magnetometer, and the error is locked in at the moment the compass is read. Land, move to a clear non-metallic surface, and relaunch. Recalibrating while still standing on the steel only teaches the aircraft the same bad magnetic field again.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.49; manufacturer guidance
The night before a paid roof survey, the app offers a firmware update it says is required to keep flying. The sound course of action is to:
- A. Skip the update and fly the job - never change anything before revenue work
- B. Install it at the job site so the aircraft is current when the client arrives
- C. Install it and fly the job normally, since manufacturer updates are tested before they are released
- D. Install it, then test-fly the aircraft somewhere low-risk before the client's job Correct answer
Why: Updates change flight-critical behavior and sometimes regress it. Part 107 makes the RPIC responsible for determining the aircraft is in a condition for safe operation, and 'the manufacturer tested it' is not that determination. A short shakedown flight over a clear area is the cheapest way to find a problem before a client and a roof are underneath it.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.15, 107.49
What does Part 107 say about using a written checklist for preflight?
- A. A checklist approved by the manufacturer must be carried at the control station
- B. It requires the preflight check but does not prescribe a checklist Correct answer
- C. Checklists are required only for operations over people
- D. The completed checklist must be retained for 90 days
Why: 107.49 lists what the RPIC must assess but leaves the method open. A written checklist is not mandatory, and it is still the practical way to make that assessment repeatable. The ACS expects you to know both halves of this: what the rule requires, and what is merely good practice.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.49; Remote Pilot ACS
Flying a perimeter orbit, you lose sight of the aircraft in sun glare. What should you do first?
- A. Stop the aircraft and maneuver it back into view Correct answer
- B. Continue the orbit, since the path is already programmed and the glare is temporary
- C. Switch to the camera feed and keep flying until the aircraft clears the glare on its own
- D. Descend immediately to the lowest safe altitude and continue toward the landing zone without visual contact
Why: The line-of-sight requirement is continuous, and the glare has just ended it. Halting and repositioning restores it within seconds. Watching the camera feed instead substitutes an aid for your own eyes, which is the very thing the rule forbids. Better still, plan orbits so the aircraft never crosses the sun.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.31
During the site survey for a job in a dense subdivision, the most useful thing to identify is:
- A. The nearest hospital
- B. The property owner's preferred camera angles
- C. Clear areas where you could put the aircraft down if something fails Correct answer
- D. The closest airport, so you can estimate how much traffic will overfly the site during the shoot
Why: 107.49 requires assessing the operating environment for risks to people and property. In a built-up area the decisive question is where the aircraft can come down without hurting anyone, and it has to be answered before the emergency, because during one you will fly toward whatever you already know is clear.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.49
After the last flight of the day, which action does the most to keep the next flight safe?
- A. Charging every battery to 100 percent so the aircraft is ready to launch first thing tomorrow
- B. Clearing the flight logs off the controller to free up storage
- C. Leaving the propellers fitted so none of them get lost in the bag
- D. Inspecting the airframe and propellers for damage picked up during the day Correct answer
Why: Damage usually shows up between flights rather than during them: a chipped propeller tip, a hairline crack in an arm, a motor that has gone gritty. Part 107 puts airworthiness and maintenance on the RPIC, and the postflight inspection is where that duty actually gets discharged. Storing lithium packs at full charge shortens their life rather than helping.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.15; manufacturer maintenance guidance
A local police officer approaches during a legal Part 107 flight and asks you to land and identify yourself. The correct response is to:
- A. Refuse, because only the FAA has authority over the airspace
- B. Land safely, then present your certificate and identification Correct answer
- C. Keep flying and produce the certificate after the job, since interrupting a flight in progress is itself a safety risk
- D. Land and surrender the aircraft for inspection
Why: 107.7 requires you to present your remote pilot certificate and identification on request to the FAA, NTSB, TSA, or any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. Whether that officer can enforce airspace rules is a separate question, and not one to argue mid-flight. Land first, then produce the documents.

Reference: 14 CFR 107.7

Ready for the real format? Take the full 60-question timed mock exam, which draws from all seven topics using the FAA's published area weighting.